For Spain, No Gain


This year of 2017 has been all about Spain. We have witnessed an explosion of Spanish influence in the field of pop music, as YouTube’s all-time viewing charts have all of a sudden been filled by an actual competitor to the English language…. But first and foremost, we’ve especially had one particular “Despacito” song, smashing all the previous YouTube records into pieces…

So from the perspective of such a massive outflow of “soft power” from the Spanish speaking world, it has been almost unimaginable to comprehend, what a ridiculous politcal mess has been created by the government at the “Motherland” of this Spanish-filled universe, which is centered at the Iberian peninsula.

Only a couple of days ago we had the regional elections there in Catalonia, which were called by the central government…and also kind of lost by them as well (a bit similar to the gamble made by UK’s Theresa May, although this Spanish case was always promising to become a farce for Madrid). So what do we have now? The Catalonian independence referendum (which was never even theoretically supposed to become a success for the pro-independence voters, based on the alleged marginality of this side), was almost mercilessly crushed by the Spanish police…and now the “marginal” supporters of Catalan pro-independence parties have won the new elections yet again (if we combine all of their votes)? So we have some very curious anomalies here: firstly, a supposedly pointless referendum was crushed with brute force, and secondly, the troublesome “marginals” have won the elections yet again…?? Or in other words, if the Spanish government is truly worthy of any kind of award this year, it should definitely be an EU special award for “misleading propaganda”…  :/

So let us now focus on these and all of the other unanswered questions a bit more specifically:

  1. Based on Article 1 of the UN charter, the purposes of the UN are (2) “To develop friendly relations among nations based on respect for the principle of equal rights and self-determination of peoples, and to take other appropriate measures to strengthen universal peace”. SO there we have it….and yet the Spanish government basically keeps just endlessly repeating, that this “principle [of] self-determination of peoples” is explicitly outlawed in their constitution, as it would result in the collapse of the territorial integrity of Spain… So here is my question, how could one of the fundamental principles of the international law, concerning political/human rights of the people, be anyhow outlawed in a supposedly democratic and free European country, which has obviously also ratified this very same UN charter?
  2. How could the Catalan people possibly decide about their own fate as a nation anyhow at all, if they are even forcibly prevented from having a referendum ever at all? Could any Spanish politicians (and their global apologists) please provide – at least on some utterly basic level – an explanation, why do e.g. the Portuguese, Dutch, Hungarians, Germans, Turks (and every other nation on Earth with their own state) deserve to have independence, but the Catalans (and Kurds as well, of course) are somehow worse and less worthy than all of the others?
  3. The EU claims that this Catalan issue is an internal matter of the Spanish state – so when peaceful citizens, who simply wish to cast their votes in an election, are beaten to the ground with batons, it should be qualified just as “the protection of the rule of law” by Brussels, and the “protection of DEMOCRACY (seriously…of all things…???)” by Madrid. How on Earth could anyone justify this? While at the same time, especially Poland (but also Hungary) is subjected to almost constant bashing by Brussels, simply on the basis of their thoroughly internal legislative activites.. and this is somehow not described as an “interference in a member state’s internal issues”??
  4. Why did the Spanish government wage such a fierce rhetorical war during the lead up towards the proposed referendum, if they were absolutely certain, that only the minority of the Catalan people support the independence? And why was the reaction on the day itself so merciless? Firstly, they could have simply accepted that this supposedly “destined-to-fail” referendum would take place (= wisdom), because then “the wolves would have eaten, but the sheep wouldn’t have been touched” – a referendum for the Catalans, and unity for Spain! Why not? Or secondly, the government could have later simply denied the validity of the referendum’s results, and that’s all…so why all of this outrageous brutality by the police?? There seem to be only two logical explanations: these are either absolute political ignorance and/or a deliberately fake political propaganda (about the actual extent of support for the independence movement)…

Honestly speaking, I believe I actually do have the answers to all of these relevant questions..



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